I've read somewhere that the hair that we shed now are the ones that have been effected or started to shed from 100 days earlier.
If that's true then surely the treatment we use we should always see maybe some kind of improvement after 100 days from start of use; either that or is there something else to the theory?
If that's true then surely the treatment we use we should always see maybe some kind of improvement after 100 days from start of use; either that or is there something else to the theory?
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