Ive done a lot of google searches, forum searches and never really saw this exact question posted and ive always wondered it myself...
Is it possible to create a hair loss problem, by using minoxidil or other hair loss medications, when a person did not have MPB? As in, I only thought i was losing my hair, freaked out, started using minoxidil, and created hairloss by somehow influencing the hair to no longer be tolerant to DHT.
Im not saying that this is my case, although maybe it is because im only losing hair where i initially put the minoxidil. i have since stopped for almost a year now and the hair loss is slightly worse but basically the exact area i once had hair and was putting the minoxidil. i was only a NW2, now im about a 2.5(yes i know, plenty have it worse, it doesnt make me feel any better though, im sorry)
I have always read its easier to maintain hair than to bring it back, so my initial freak out response was to put it on a larger area than my hair was actually thinning. now its almost exactly that area, I stopped using minox, and havent lost any more since i stopped and its been about a year. My family history is kinda crazy but i shouldnt lose all my hair is all i can say in short. my father is 66 and a NW3 no vertex, im 25, we have similar hair i think, i know MPB comes from both sides of the family, neither side was completely bald.
thus i ask the question, im wondering if i shot myself in the foot, or am i just loosing hair very slowly or in stages? and did i potentially cause hair loss at 25, when it should have maybe started at 40?
Is it possible to create a hair loss problem, by using minoxidil or other hair loss medications, when a person did not have MPB? As in, I only thought i was losing my hair, freaked out, started using minoxidil, and created hairloss by somehow influencing the hair to no longer be tolerant to DHT.
Im not saying that this is my case, although maybe it is because im only losing hair where i initially put the minoxidil. i have since stopped for almost a year now and the hair loss is slightly worse but basically the exact area i once had hair and was putting the minoxidil. i was only a NW2, now im about a 2.5(yes i know, plenty have it worse, it doesnt make me feel any better though, im sorry)
I have always read its easier to maintain hair than to bring it back, so my initial freak out response was to put it on a larger area than my hair was actually thinning. now its almost exactly that area, I stopped using minox, and havent lost any more since i stopped and its been about a year. My family history is kinda crazy but i shouldnt lose all my hair is all i can say in short. my father is 66 and a NW3 no vertex, im 25, we have similar hair i think, i know MPB comes from both sides of the family, neither side was completely bald.
thus i ask the question, im wondering if i shot myself in the foot, or am i just loosing hair very slowly or in stages? and did i potentially cause hair loss at 25, when it should have maybe started at 40?
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