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hi 
Just a warning, this is going to be a long post, but i want to make sure i cover everything i can.
Im 19 and my hair started thinning when i was around 16, but my hairloss follows a more diffuse thinning female pattern like the ludwig scale for female hair loss. My crown never had a bald spot and my hairline is maybe slightly receded but otherwise intact. It started with my hair part becoming wider and more noticeable with time and it slowly spread across to my temples leaving no bald spots, but thin frizzy hair and a visible scalp over the area of loss.
Im pretty sure i inherited this from my mothers side. My dad has standard mpb in his family, but he seems to be the lucky sibling. I think hes starting to show signs of mild hair loss, but for 48 he has very thick hair. My maternal grandma and mother both have very thin hair all over their heads. The sides and temples are thinned out, but the back portion of both of their scalps is still full and unaffected, and they both saud they lost it in a pattern, not all at once. Ive read about diffuse thinning and DPA (diffuse pattern alopecia) vs DUPA (diffuse unpatterned alopecia) and was wondering what would cause only the sides to thin but not the back? Is my understanding that the whole horseshoe pattern or donor area is dht resistant, except in the case of DUPA where the entire scalp is affected. Since they both lost it in a spreading pattern and the back portion is unaffected, im assuming they both suffer from DPA, but thatbdoesnt explain why the sides of their head were affected?
Ive been taking finasteride for nearly 5 months and while its too early to tell, i think im having some success, my hair has stopped shedding and i think ive had some minor regrowth. the problem is that there isnt alot of information online that i can find about my particular pattern of hair loss, so theres alot i dont really know. Is it normal for some men to lose hair in a female thinning type of pattern? Is it caused by the same factors of the norwood style MPB? Are treatments more or less effective in any way? Can it be treated with finasteride? Would i make a bad hair transplant candidate in the future? And since im male do you think my final hair pattern will be different since it came from females in my family?
Thanks, hope you guys can help. Ill post pics in a moment
Just a warning, this is going to be a long post, but i want to make sure i cover everything i can.
Im 19 and my hair started thinning when i was around 16, but my hairloss follows a more diffuse thinning female pattern like the ludwig scale for female hair loss. My crown never had a bald spot and my hairline is maybe slightly receded but otherwise intact. It started with my hair part becoming wider and more noticeable with time and it slowly spread across to my temples leaving no bald spots, but thin frizzy hair and a visible scalp over the area of loss.
Im pretty sure i inherited this from my mothers side. My dad has standard mpb in his family, but he seems to be the lucky sibling. I think hes starting to show signs of mild hair loss, but for 48 he has very thick hair. My maternal grandma and mother both have very thin hair all over their heads. The sides and temples are thinned out, but the back portion of both of their scalps is still full and unaffected, and they both saud they lost it in a pattern, not all at once. Ive read about diffuse thinning and DPA (diffuse pattern alopecia) vs DUPA (diffuse unpatterned alopecia) and was wondering what would cause only the sides to thin but not the back? Is my understanding that the whole horseshoe pattern or donor area is dht resistant, except in the case of DUPA where the entire scalp is affected. Since they both lost it in a spreading pattern and the back portion is unaffected, im assuming they both suffer from DPA, but thatbdoesnt explain why the sides of their head were affected?
Ive been taking finasteride for nearly 5 months and while its too early to tell, i think im having some success, my hair has stopped shedding and i think ive had some minor regrowth. the problem is that there isnt alot of information online that i can find about my particular pattern of hair loss, so theres alot i dont really know. Is it normal for some men to lose hair in a female thinning type of pattern? Is it caused by the same factors of the norwood style MPB? Are treatments more or less effective in any way? Can it be treated with finasteride? Would i make a bad hair transplant candidate in the future? And since im male do you think my final hair pattern will be different since it came from females in my family?
Thanks, hope you guys can help. Ill post pics in a moment
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