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Hello there.
I'm 18 years old and I started noticing my hair thinning in the left corner of my hairline in October 2012 and eventually disappearing now creating a bald spot in my hairline. Right side has started to thin a little bit, but is not even near left side. I have always had thin individual hairs but a ton of it, and my hairline has always been a NW0, completely straight as Brad Pitts.
When I first noticed it I never thought of baldness as there is no baldness in my family; Dad is NW0 at 63, Grandpa NW1 till 70, Moms dad wasn't bald and none of my cousins or uncles are bald or had any issues with balding. Only my dads brother went from NW1 to NW2 in his 30's.
I have been to an authorized doctor twice, two different dermatologist and a private company specializing in hair loss. Simply because I want several opinions on my hair.
All doctors had a hard time saying wether it was MPB or not, as I couldn't provide them with my grandparents hair, I simply didn't know about it before recently, as I have been asked to be known with my families baldness history till my next derm appointment.
Anyways, my confusion lies in the fact that the dermatologist said I have an intense allergic reaction and infection in my hair follicles from using styling products, bad shampoo and messing in my hair with my fingers 24/7. She prescribed me with Protopic which I have to use for 4 weeks. She said that the above mentioned issues could be the reason why I experience hair loss there. She called it "spot baldness" and "it could either be that or MPB". My next appointment she will bring a secondary dermatologist so they're two persons examining my hair completely.
So my question is: Can her statement be true regarding baldness being caused as of the above mentioned issues? Or should I fear for MPB even though my family has no baldness?
I'm 18 years old and I started noticing my hair thinning in the left corner of my hairline in October 2012 and eventually disappearing now creating a bald spot in my hairline. Right side has started to thin a little bit, but is not even near left side. I have always had thin individual hairs but a ton of it, and my hairline has always been a NW0, completely straight as Brad Pitts.
When I first noticed it I never thought of baldness as there is no baldness in my family; Dad is NW0 at 63, Grandpa NW1 till 70, Moms dad wasn't bald and none of my cousins or uncles are bald or had any issues with balding. Only my dads brother went from NW1 to NW2 in his 30's.
I have been to an authorized doctor twice, two different dermatologist and a private company specializing in hair loss. Simply because I want several opinions on my hair.
All doctors had a hard time saying wether it was MPB or not, as I couldn't provide them with my grandparents hair, I simply didn't know about it before recently, as I have been asked to be known with my families baldness history till my next derm appointment.
Anyways, my confusion lies in the fact that the dermatologist said I have an intense allergic reaction and infection in my hair follicles from using styling products, bad shampoo and messing in my hair with my fingers 24/7. She prescribed me with Protopic which I have to use for 4 weeks. She said that the above mentioned issues could be the reason why I experience hair loss there. She called it "spot baldness" and "it could either be that or MPB". My next appointment she will bring a secondary dermatologist so they're two persons examining my hair completely.
So my question is: Can her statement be true regarding baldness being caused as of the above mentioned issues? Or should I fear for MPB even though my family has no baldness?
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