I ask this question because although I have MPB, my hair loss has been strange. When I was 16 I noticed general thinning throughout the top of my head. I recognized it because I could see more scalp. However, I did not have any recision in the temple area.
It wasn't until I turned about 24 that my temples started receding but I still had a solid hairline. I would say it would have been equivalent to a NW2.
However, now at 28 I'm probably close to a NW3. My hair has definitely continued thinning but I still don't have a bald spot.
It seems like my balding has been backwards of the normal trend of receding hairline first.
I'll never be able to prove it was accutane, but I believe that is what thinning my hair and the receding happened naturally over time.
It wasn't until I turned about 24 that my temples started receding but I still had a solid hairline. I would say it would have been equivalent to a NW2.
However, now at 28 I'm probably close to a NW3. My hair has definitely continued thinning but I still don't have a bald spot.
It seems like my balding has been backwards of the normal trend of receding hairline first.
I'll never be able to prove it was accutane, but I believe that is what thinning my hair and the receding happened naturally over time.
Comment