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Question: Rogain & Propecia don't work so is my hair loss different?
Been a lurker on this forum for many years.
Background: Started Propecia and Rogain around 20-21 years of age, I recently turned 26 this Feb 2015. Both products seemed to have merely slowed the progress of my hair loss over the years. I started when I had a very thick head of hair and continued to have diffuse hair loss on top all the while using both products.
Considering that these products only ceased to slow my hair loss, what is to be said about people like me where these products don't respond as well or arguably at all?
What biological factors determine whether these products will work for someone? Is there anything that can be said about the percentage of people who don't respond to these products?
Such as if your hair loss didn't respond to product A then you must have factor B which causes your particular type of hair loss.
Any helpful information in regard to this would be greatly appreciated.
Additionally I have been to hair loss doctors who all agree I have male pattern baldness. My father still has hair on his head (although thin) and hes 60. I have bald and thin uncles on my mothers side. I'm in very good health, athletic, red hair and brown eye brows interestingly.
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Seems like you've just got really aggressive loss, very sensitive to even slight amounts of DHT. I've battled the same thing. Started Propecia at 22 and kept losing ground very slowly over the years. I switched to Dutasteride after 6 years on Propecia and recently added RU. My hair is still thinning very slowly, but it's much, much better than it would be without treatments. My grandfathers were both completely bald at 26, I'm still looking ok at 30. Obviously not the same hair as when I was 13, but good enough to pass.
I'd give dutasteride a try for one year. Then add RU if you're still losing ground. At that point, you're on the strongest regimen there is within reasonable safety.
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Not everyone responds well to finasteride and/or minoxidil, could be that you were one of the unlucky ones perhaps? Also, do know that slowing down hair loss, even by the slightest bit, also means that medication is having an effect.
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Thanks for the response Illusion, however I'm not sure you understood my topic question. Let me try to rephrase.
There are two groups of people, the ones that respond well to Rogain and Propecia, and then the ones that don't. If a study was done to compare both groups of people in order to look for what chemical / biological markers cause the lack of effectiveness this could lead to better treatments down the road. Is there any current scientific understanding for why these treatments don't work for a percentage of the population that takes them? If so what do we know so far? If Rogain doesn't work for instance, does that mean the release mechanism is incompatible with something in my biology or perhaps something else?
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usually those who are destinated for norwood6 or 7 don't respond very well to medication.
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I guess no one has to worry then robincurtz because I don't think anyone has ever been "destinated". Proud of you, usin yur big words
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This information is even there on balding blog brother.
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