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Originally Posted by burtandernie
Let me ask this then. How many centimeters is a mature hairline before it then changes to MPB status?
Type "V" MPB is best indicated by thinning in the vertex and mid-anterior areas as well as possible excessive temple hair loss that is beyond the natural and normal adult mature male hair line for your race.. Type "A" MPB is indicated by marked recession of the forelock. You need to stop thinking of temple hair recession as a sole indication of MPB. Hairline recession alone does not indicate MPB at all.
Originally Posted by burtandernie
I have never seen any formal scale or chart universally defining the mature hairline.
There is no universal "one size fits all" mature male hair line. It varies by race. Caucaion males tend to have deeper temple hair recession than other races.
Go to HairDirect.com and spend the $50.00 for the male fitting kit. In that kit they include temples of the most common mature male hair lines by race. Now try to put your thinking cap on and think about this. If the natural and normal adult mature male hair line does not exist, why then does Hair Direct include templates of it in their fitting kit? The reason they include these templates in their fitting kit is because it does exist. It is real. It is normal - and by itself it is not an indication of MPB.
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Originally Posted by sp8rky
A NW7 is normal for people losing their hair, and MPB isn't a disease.
Not every man with MPB progresses all the way to Norwood 7. That second part is true though. MPB is not a disease. It totally stinks, especially for guys who are unable to cope with it, but MPB is both natural and normal.
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Originally Posted by Tracy C
Not every man with MPB progresses all the way to Norwood 7. That second part is true though. MPB is not a disease. It totally stinks, especially for guys who are unable to cope with it, but MPB is both natural and normal.
That wasn't my point, my point is that a NW7 is natural, should a man bald to this stage.
I don't see NW7 men in the street and think, he doesn't look normal, infact it wouldn't even register to me that the man was bald at all.
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Originally Posted by BigThinker
Why are you going on and on about the idea of a "mature hairline"?
Because he is trying to justify his obsession with hairloss even though he is a NW 1/2, it is ruining his life...
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The issue is your arbitrarily picking some random spot say 2 cm and saying that first 2 cm is not MPB even though its hair loss caused by the normal MPB process. Then once its past 2cm your calling it the start of MPB when really its all the same process happening.
Small amounts of hair loss even NW 1 -> NW 2 changes your appearance whether that bothers someone or being NW 7 bothers them depends on the person. How can you make that choice for them.
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Senior Member
Originally Posted by burtandernie
What about me calling MPB an extra matured hairline and since MPB is common for most men (80% at some point in life) its not a disease or problem at all?
I feel your saying a man getting a mature hairline does not have hair loss but really its the same underlying condition whether its common or not among most men is irrelevant because not every man gets it. If every single man on earth had it then I would agree with you
Well it's semantics but it's really not a disease at all. From way back in biology class to more recent medical literature, it is stated that all Caucasian males are encoded for mbp at birth and about 96% or so experience at least temple recession. 80-85+ percent go further than that. Notice I said Caucasian males, not males in general. We got the short end of the stick so to speak.
My biology teacher called it something like a delayed secondary sexual trait with mixed penetrance (or something like that). She said there would not be any stigma about balding if it happened to all males at the same time like puberty.
With that said, knowing that I am basically supposed to go bald doesn't make me feel much better. But at the same time, just knowing that it was going to happen to me was enough motivation to get on propecia.
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Originally Posted by burtandernie
Why is some hair loss called a "mature hairline" by some people who supposedly understand hair loss yet hair loss to a greater extent is then called MPB and changes to being considered a disease?
The natural and normal adult mature male hair line is not MPB. It is a typical male trait like a deeper voice, bigger hands, bigger feet and so on. It is more common for caucasian males than other races.
MPB is different from the natural and normal adult male hairline and it is not a disease.
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Originally Posted by Tracy C
The natural and normal adult mature male hair line is not MPB. It is a typical male trait like a deeper voice, bigger hands, bigger feet and so on. It is more common for caucasian males than other races.
MPB is different from the natural and normal adult male hairline and it is not a disease.
yet not every man develops it, yet every man's voice breaks.
mature hairlines is MPB (A milder form)
I know so many guys in their 30s with a perfect set of hair.
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Originally Posted by yeahyeahyeah
yet not every man develops it, yet every man's voice breaks.
mature hairlines is MPB (A milder form)
I know so many guys in their 30s with a perfect set of hair.
Yeah I agree. I also personally think a stronger AA maybe one that targets receptors can completely stop MPB much like castrated men. I think MPB really is all androgens we just dont have any such treatment to see the results yet. Its a huge part of MPB though in terms of stopping MPB maybe even under rated still because propecia falls short
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Senior Member
Originally Posted by yeahyeahyeah
yet not every man develops it, yet every man's voice breaks.
mature hairlines is MPB (A milder form)
I know so many guys in their 30s with a perfect set of hair.
96% is almost every (Caucasian) man.
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