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Originally Posted by JJacobs152
Not sure why you think this. Being a potent vasodilator would only lead to venodilation allowing a better concentration of nutrients to the hair follicle and due to the expansion of the smooth muscle arterioles - would decrease the diffusion barrier.
It's basically a chemical wig bro! If you get off it you are a goner! I'm not willing to put it on my head twice a day for the rest of my life. Injections it would be the way go to, yields better results as well.
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Senior Member
Originally Posted by Dan26
It's basically a chemical wig bro! If you get off it you are a goner! I'm not willing to put it on my head twice a day for the rest of my life. Injections it would be the way go to, yields better results as well.
That's understandable. I def think the injections will also be a "chemical wig" as well though. I mean mpb is determined at the genetic level. There won't be anything for quite sometime, showing methylation of the genes keeping it inactive. It's unfortunate, that there is more than 1 gene responsible for this, or this wouldn't be an issue at all.
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Originally Posted by JJacobs152
That's understandable. I def think the injections will also be a "chemical wig" as well though. I mean mpb is determined at the genetic level. There won't be anything for quite sometime, showing methylation of the genes keeping it inactive. It's unfortunate, that there is more than 1 gene responsible for this, or this wouldn't be an issue at all.
Yes, we need unlimited donor supply! Until then anti-androgens, growth factors and inhibiting PDG2 will be the way to go. And yes injecting would be a chemical wig aswell, but in a study injections only ONCE a week for the first half then once every TWO weeks for the second half of the study had better results than daily topical applications. If you are willing to spend the money on a mesogun it is quite easy to do! And you also use way less of the substance in the long run since it is going straight to the follicle via injection.
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So I'll admit that I haven't read through this entire thread (so little time...), but I'll just ask this:
Is there any good reason to take 1mg Propecia as opposed to .5mg? I mean, the lower dose halves the cost, and if the response curve is flat, what's the point? Same DHT inhibition, same sides, etc. I've settled into taking .5 every other day, and I'm just wondering if there's any reason to bump it up.
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On the gene therapy level though I believe it was identified the trigger of the baldness gene in the human genome once it activated from dormancy from the DNA sequence but as there is no way yet to shut off that trigger through scientific research as yet with verifiable results we only have the effect we can treat as testosterone and DHT drop off as the years pass so someone who is treating this issue in their 20's and 30's and even 40's and their scale of Norwood has not reduced them past say Norwood 5+or 6 has a fairly reasonable chance depending on their response to Finasteride, Ketoconazole in a shampoo formula , and Minoxidil to slow their hair loss and recoup lost hair in the vertex and crown of their scalp over a routine dosage over time exceeding a year or so. In doing so you are treating against the 5AR inhibitors at the receptors in the follicle, cleaning out DHT on both the scalp and serum level in the blood stream and then you are dealing wit sebum and oil deposits clogging out the hair roots. Over time you will encounter shedding and regrowth over time as the replacement hairs that backfill the shed are stronger and longer in consistency. But you might not respond well to finasteride and encounter heavy side effects or minoxidil might give you dark circles or bags under your eyes.. and the keto might not be effective. In those cases people can either wait patiently for an alternatives, take holistic alternatives like black currant tea, emu oil, biotin, and saw palmetto , get a hair transplant or simply shave their heads and take destiny of hair loss in their own hands rather than wait for nature to do the same thing over a slower range of time.
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Originally Posted by dex89
When I had it, I wouldn't get erection if the girl was naked. She had to make out with me or rub me out to get it up. Even then I had to put on the condom quickly before my penis became numb and start with the intercourse. Sometimes I couldn't ejaculate and we will be having sex for an hour or two and nothing, it got limb. The girl would trip out and question me "am i not good for you or what?" Then I replied, did you cum? and she reply Yes and the I told what the **** is the problem then? lol it happen to me with 3 different girls and eventually I never heard from them again because of it. I had it the first 4-5 months on fin...
Hey Dex! Did it get better after the 4-5months? Is it normal now?
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Senior Member
Originally Posted by khan
Hey Dex! Did it get better after the 4-5months? Is it normal now?
Yeah khan, I'm back to normal.
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win200
You can make up your own mind if someone had working links to wherever "buddha" (author of the webpage linked in post #1) got his Merck data. It's too late right now for me to search through journals, sorry. I will however give you a summarise to the best of my memory (though you should note - i'm not sure i've seen the ostrogen data the dude quoted).
The study shows 0.05mg inhibits very little less scalp DHT than 1mg (a few %, whilst inhbiting 20% less serum DHT (the big question - less chance of side effects? Not that simple based on pharmacological accumulation of drugs meaning dose could be useless), and causes less increase in testosterone (another big question - less conversion to oestrogen and chance of developing gyno? Another not simple question, as testosterone might balance out long-term, in addition to other factors).
On the face of it, the data seems significant. HOWEVER, you're welcome to disagree, but the data to me seems debunked by the fact that the 0.2mg dose did not provide "expected" values for these 3 measures above between 0.5mg and 1mg dose. Thus, can we really draw any reliable conclusions from the data provided?
To summarise, 0.05mg is much cheaper (20x), MAY have a reduced chance of causing side effects. However, it inhibits DHT slightly less, and trying to get a 0.05mg dose from a 1/5mg pill is highly inconvenient and likely inaccurate.
Also important, Desmond (a self-reported pharmacologist - no offence Desmond, I've got to stay objective here!) mentioned the difference between a plasma half-life (the ~6 hours usually reported for finasteride), and a biological half-life (what we are actually interested in - how long the pharmacological effects of a drug remain before another dose is required). Correct me if i'm wrong Desmond, but based on some studies of a single dose of finasteride given to people (again, you'll have to get these yourself I'm afraid), along with how half-lives of drugs alter with prolonged use (the longer you take a drug, the more build-up and the longer clearance takes), YOU SHOULD DOSE BEFORE EVERY 3RD DAY.
Personally, I'm just taking any dose I see fit, every other day.
/sleep
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Senior Member
Originally Posted by Benzzro
Is there danger to continue usage? Because I can deal with it since it's only effected my erections by like 10%.
Thanks for the reply btw!
Benzzro, majority of ppl manage to overcome the libido issues within 3-4 months. If you notice any worsening of libido, or development of new s/e (testicular pain, pain during urination/ejaculation, or pain in the groin/penis area) then you should slowly wean off propecia!
I'd stick with it for a while and monitor your sides
Originally Posted by Dan26
Hey Desmond what do you think about dissolving the fin tablet in an alcohol? Also, could a 1mg fin pill be cut 8 ways by a pill cutter? I may just take little bites off the pill, I recall a member saying he still got mild sides from doing that. For me, as long as I take between 0.05-0.2 mg every 3-5 days I would be good. Im using RU on the front of my scalp and hairline so all I am really hoping for with fin is some stability in the crown and to knock my DHT down a little.
Hey Dan, back in the old days, pharmacists used to dissolve everything in ethanol and give it to ppl as alcohol-based elixirs, so it's definitely OK to do so. Unfortunately, finasteride doesn't dissolve in water and is only soluble in alcohol. So to measure microdoses (0.05mg) dissolving in alcohol is your only option. What you can do is dissolve half a tablet (0.5mg) of propecia in 10mL of ethanol. Then measure out 1 mL and add it to some juice! Take that every 2-3 days and you should be sweet
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