Do I really need all that Fin???

Being a young guy who has only recently started the balding process, I would assume that my DHT levels have only gone up a small amount to warrant this small amount of thinning.

Since I wasn't balding before this DHT increase, is it safe to assume that I do not need to lower my DHT levels by as much as 70% as Fin does?

Would a better outcome not be to lower my DHT levels with Fin to a degree that corresponds to the amount they have increased in the past year or so? Say, if they have increased 15% should I not try a Fin dosage that lower DHT by 15%?

:o

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Originally Posted by Ball D

Being a young guy who has only recently started the balding process, I would assume that my DHT levels have only gone up a small amount to warrant this small amount of thinning.

Since I wasn't balding before this DHT increase, is it safe to assume that I do not need to lower my DHT levels by as much as 70% as Fin does?

Would a better outcome not be to lower my DHT levels with Fin to a degree that corresponds to the amount they have increased in the past year or so? Say, if they have increased 15% should I not try a Fin dosage that lower DHT by 15%?

:o

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spot on. maintain the balance or you will pay for it with your hair. Of course merck do not reccomend this as the trial was designed for one dosage.

Ball D,

You really need to pose questions like this to a doctor. I agree that a lower dose for some guys should make sense - but I'm not a doctor.

Lower dosage does not mean lowered DHT reduction. Research.

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Originally Posted by clandestine

Lower dosage does not mean lowered DHT reduction. Research.

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Minimum effective dose of Fin is .2mg, which has been found to be as effective as 1mg or 5mg. That is it suppresses up to 70% DHT.

So somewhere between .0mg and .2mg there is going to be an amount that suppresses say, 30%. Logical, no?

But humour me, what research are you referencing?

Quote:

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Originally Posted by Ball D

Minimum effective dose of Fin is .2mg, which has been found to be as effective as 1mg or 5mg. That is it suppresses up to 70% DHT.

So somewhere between .0mg and .2mg there is going to be an amount that suppresses say, 30%. Logical, no?

But humour me, what research are you referencing?

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Tough to say; finasteride does not necessarily act logically, given its fairly flat response curve, even for doses as small as 0.01mg.

"Scalp skin DHT levels declined significantly by 13.0% with placebo and by 14.9%, 61.6%, 56. 5%, 64.1%, and 69.4% with 0.01, 0.05, 0.2, 1, and 5 mg doses of finasteride, respectively. Serum DHT levels declined significantly (P <.001) by 49.5%, 68.6%, 71.4%, and 72.2% in the 0.05, 0.2, 1, and 5 mg finasteride treatment groups, respectively."

Also, with such low doses, you would need to consider the dissolution of pills in ethanol perhaps in order to administer with any accuracy.

http://i.imgur.com/x5Pdu.jpg